TrevC
Well-known member
"Maybe one of you intelligent people can answer a question I have regarding impedance.
What happens to impedance if you are biamping? Say you've got 2, 2 channel amps, one amp per speaker? One channel doing highs and the other doing lows. The speaker is rated at 4ohms nominal. Would the amp still see the nominal or would it be halved? What if you had mono amps driving low and highs separately? I imagine in this instance the amp would see a difference?"
Presumably you aren't going active with electronic crossovers so If, say, you are only connecting to the bass the amplifier will see exactly the same impedance at bass frequencies as it would have done without biamping. Above that the impedance will rise. There are no power or performance gains with such a set up, you are just wasting an amplifier, because the amplifier is still producing output at all frequencies but they aren't being used.
What happens to impedance if you are biamping? Say you've got 2, 2 channel amps, one amp per speaker? One channel doing highs and the other doing lows. The speaker is rated at 4ohms nominal. Would the amp still see the nominal or would it be halved? What if you had mono amps driving low and highs separately? I imagine in this instance the amp would see a difference?"
Presumably you aren't going active with electronic crossovers so If, say, you are only connecting to the bass the amplifier will see exactly the same impedance at bass frequencies as it would have done without biamping. Above that the impedance will rise. There are no power or performance gains with such a set up, you are just wasting an amplifier, because the amplifier is still producing output at all frequencies but they aren't being used.