Hi all
Really silly questions here but it's been on my mind for a while bugging me.
If a man and a woman both sing the same musical note at the same SPL, would they both have the same frequency response? And yet still sound different?
If so, is this the same reason that if you have two different pairs of speakers, both with flat frequency responses (using the same amp etc), they often sound different? Is this what they refer to as "speaker voicing"?
Apologies again if I am way off the mark. Feel free to correct me.
Part of this Hi-Fi journey is the fun in learning
Thanks again!
Really silly questions here but it's been on my mind for a while bugging me.
If a man and a woman both sing the same musical note at the same SPL, would they both have the same frequency response? And yet still sound different?
If so, is this the same reason that if you have two different pairs of speakers, both with flat frequency responses (using the same amp etc), they often sound different? Is this what they refer to as "speaker voicing"?
Apologies again if I am way off the mark. Feel free to correct me.
Part of this Hi-Fi journey is the fun in learning
Thanks again!