Bi-Amping Question

[philpot1001]

If i have an integrated amp rated at 60W then Bi-Amp it with a power amp rated at 100W, does this mean the treble in the speakers is effectively driven at 60W and the mid / bass driven at 100W?

Im making this assumption on the premise that the integrated amp is wired to the treble speaker binding posts and the power and is wired to the mid / bass speaker binding posts (is that how it works?).

More a point of interest than anything specific.

 

[BigH]

No I don't think it works like that, you don't add 100 + 60 because its 100w per channel, thats what it will be.

 

[philpot1001]

oh i see, i must have misunderstood then. Im guessing that both sets of speaker cables come out of the back of the power amp then, and there is just some bridging between the integrated and power amps?

 

[abacus]

If i have an integrated amp rated at 60W then Bi-Amp it with a power amp rated at 100W, does this mean the treble in the speakers is effectively driven at 60W and the mid / bass driven at 100W?

Im making this assumption on the premise that the integrated amp is wired to the treble speaker binding posts and the power and is wired to the mid / bass speaker binding posts (is that how it works?).

More a point of interest than anything specific.

Yes, the integrated amp will be supplying 60w to the tweeters (Assuming you have connected it to the tweeter terminals) and the power amp will be supplying 100w to the Mid/Bass. (Problems can sometimes occur if the gain of the power amp is different to the gain of the integrated amp, which is why it is normally best to stick to the same manufacturer for integrated and power amp)

The only time you bridge the speaker terminals (Activating speaker a & b) is if you bi-Wire, which as it produces no benefits whatsoever, is just a waste of time. (As all you effectively doing is moving the speaker links to the amp)

Hope this helps

Bill

 

[philpot1001]

yeah thats what i originally thought, thanks Bill