hifilover1979:Bodfish:
Alears: Also definately forget the bi-amping bit. If you are running with the speakers original crossover still in place it will make no difference if each set of terminals is driven by a different power source or not!
I find that interesting. Why would it make 'no difference'? If each 'leg' of the amplifier is only presented with one part of the cross-over it will be operating over a narrower frequency range and only dealing with the load presented by that section and not both at the same time. So clearly there is a difference technically.
Surely it would be more helpful to say 'I tried it and personally didn't notice any improvements'?
I agree... Bit of a silly comment in my opinion
My B&W 685's are connected to the amp via Chord Carnival Silverscreen bi-wire BUT I'm using one lot of the speaker connections on the amp to connect all 4 speaker connections on the speakers (i.e. 2 - 4 formation)
I have been lucky enough to bi-amp the 685's and I felt and heard that it made a definate difference. The integrated powered the HF's and the power amp powered the LF's; for me the bass became tauter and more detailed and punchier, the midrange was again more detailed and had better timing and the treble was very crisp and precise.
I then bi-wired the 685's and felt that they lost all of the above and became a little muddled to be honest. Felt that they were still fairly bass proud but it had become overwhelming at times
As the power amp was just on loan I decided to keep the bi-wire and wire them in the 2-4 set-up as I've seen mentioned a few times on here and that gave me a good middle ground to the above 2 experiments and I think the 685's sound now is bob-on for what I was after
Your point is taken. I think the main sticking point is the word 'sonically'.
Personally i think the OP would not be better off paying out a large amount in order to bi-amp.
That however, was not the OP's original question. The answer to which would still be No