This is my first post here.
I have an Marantz PM-47 amplifier from 1996. The label behind the case showing 8~16 ohm.
Online information shows:
Power output: 40 watts per channel into 8 ohm (stereo)
Frequency response: 10Hz to 50kHz
Total harmonic distortion: 0.008%
Damping factor: 60
Input sensitivity: 2.5mV (MM), 150mV (line)
Signal to noise ratio: 86dB (MM), 96dB (line)
Channel separation: 80dB (line)
Dimensions: 439 × 103 × 340mm
Weight: 5.4kg
Year: 1996
The two speakers are 2-way JPW P1:
Nominal impedance: 8 ohms
Power handling: 70 watts
Sensitivity at 1w/1m: 89dB
Is the Marantz amp (40w) too weak to handle the JPW speakers (70)? I see people recommending the power of amp should be 50%-100% more than the speakers. In my case, my amp should be 60~80w, right?
I find the sound quality of the speakers to be less satisfying although almost everybody from different online forums are praising the these speakers. I wonder if it is the undersizing of my amp?
I have an Marantz PM-47 amplifier from 1996. The label behind the case showing 8~16 ohm.
Online information shows:
Power output: 40 watts per channel into 8 ohm (stereo)
Frequency response: 10Hz to 50kHz
Total harmonic distortion: 0.008%
Damping factor: 60
Input sensitivity: 2.5mV (MM), 150mV (line)
Signal to noise ratio: 86dB (MM), 96dB (line)
Channel separation: 80dB (line)
Dimensions: 439 × 103 × 340mm
Weight: 5.4kg
Year: 1996
The two speakers are 2-way JPW P1:
Nominal impedance: 8 ohms
Power handling: 70 watts
Sensitivity at 1w/1m: 89dB
Is the Marantz amp (40w) too weak to handle the JPW speakers (70)? I see people recommending the power of amp should be 50%-100% more than the speakers. In my case, my amp should be 60~80w, right?
I find the sound quality of the speakers to be less satisfying although almost everybody from different online forums are praising the these speakers. I wonder if it is the undersizing of my amp?